Can You Say Loophole?
In all the research I did about the BMV and voter ID laws, I failed to read the actual legislation. Now that I have (thanks to an anonymous comment pointing out an error), I verified that the bill calls for ID cards to be issued free of charge to any person who will be 18 years of age by the next election. So I stand corrected. The voter ID law in and of itself does not issue a cost to voting.
However…
I did come across the fact that an ID is not required for absentee voters:
“Sec. 1.2. An absentee voter is not required to provide proof of identification when:
(1) mailing, delivering, or transmitting an absentee ballot under section 1 of this chapter; or
(2) voting before an absentee board under section 25 of this chapter.
So must the voter show ID to obtain the absentee ballot? No.
“A voter voting by absentee ballot shall make and subscribe to the affidavit prescribed by IC 3-11-4-21… [which requires that] … the voter affirms under penalty of perjury that the following information is true:
(1) The name of the precinct and township (or ward and city or town).
(2) That the voter is:
(A) a resident of; or
(B) entitled … to vote in the precinct.
(3) The voter's complete residence address, including the name of the city or town and county.
(4) That the voter is entitled to vote in the precinct, the type of election to be held, and the date of the election.”
…plus some more requirements stating that the voter was, in fact, the one to cast the ballot. And the voter then signs the affidavit. And does not show ID.
Which means that poor people can avoid expense by absentee voting.
OR it means that the entire justification for the voter ID law (to prevent fraud) is bogus because the legislators intentionally built in a giant, gaping loophole.
Think about it.
However…
I did come across the fact that an ID is not required for absentee voters:
“Sec. 1.2. An absentee voter is not required to provide proof of identification when:
(1) mailing, delivering, or transmitting an absentee ballot under section 1 of this chapter; or
(2) voting before an absentee board under section 25 of this chapter.
So must the voter show ID to obtain the absentee ballot? No.
“A voter voting by absentee ballot shall make and subscribe to the affidavit prescribed by IC 3-11-4-21… [which requires that] … the voter affirms under penalty of perjury that the following information is true:
(1) The name of the precinct and township (or ward and city or town).
(2) That the voter is:
(A) a resident of; or
(B) entitled … to vote in the precinct.
(3) The voter's complete residence address, including the name of the city or town and county.
(4) That the voter is entitled to vote in the precinct, the type of election to be held, and the date of the election.”
…plus some more requirements stating that the voter was, in fact, the one to cast the ballot. And the voter then signs the affidavit. And does not show ID.
Which means that poor people can avoid expense by absentee voting.
OR it means that the entire justification for the voter ID law (to prevent fraud) is bogus because the legislators intentionally built in a giant, gaping loophole.
Think about it.
1 Comments:
People keep missing the point. It is not a (direct)poll tax (although there are costs to obtain documents necessary for even a free ID card). It is meant to discourage the poor, the elderly, and minorities from voting.
Those are the groups least likely to have a car, least likely to have valid ID, and most likely to vote Democratic.
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